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Post by GrumpyBigBee on Oct 19, 2007 13:41:31 GMT -5
do I have to roll the foe's pinfall twice, and get it, or a 6 twice in order for him to do the move?
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Post by JamieOD on Oct 19, 2007 14:13:12 GMT -5
I believe you roll the opponent's pinfall twice.
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Post by MikeMcKinney on Oct 19, 2007 14:53:57 GMT -5
You roll opponent's pin + finshers rating...if successful do the same thing again. If it hit's twice in a row, it's all over but the crying.
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Post by Trent Lawless on Oct 19, 2007 15:00:48 GMT -5
Yeah, you only need to roll the 6 once. After that, it's like Bundy yelling "FIVE!"
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Post by Barnestormer on Oct 19, 2007 15:38:21 GMT -5
Yeah, you only need to roll the 6 once. After that, it's like Bundy yelling "FIVE!" I've been using one of Brian Barrow's "Hyper-Real" house rules concerning rolling PIN, in which you would roll the PIN rating 3 times (adding the finisher rating to all 3 rolls) to determine a pinfall/submission victory. Using this house rule, whenever Tanck rolls his finisher, should that mean that I should have the opponent roll 4 times, 5 times or 6? |
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Post by Trent Lawless on Oct 20, 2007 11:25:10 GMT -5
Personally I'd just tack on the extra one and make it four rolls. Six is getting into the realm of impossibility!
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Post by Barnestormer on Oct 21, 2007 10:41:26 GMT -5
Personally I'd just tack on the extra one and make it four rolls. Six is getting into the realm of impossibility! OK, sounds good. I'd always been confused because of that. |
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Post by GrumpyBigBee on Oct 23, 2007 8:43:02 GMT -5
cool thanks all! Im glad Ive been doing it right the whole time. lol
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Post by rawhide on Oct 23, 2007 10:00:12 GMT -5
besides if you rolled the plus 6 it would alost be like a automatic pin.
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